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I disagree, there's some evidence that the term has a rich history. I've just seen it used in a 1853 case in San Fransisco, California, United States. (e.g Surocco v. Geary, Supreme Court of California, 3 Cal. 69, 58 Am.Dec. 385, "Geary, at that time Alcade of San Francisco..."). In addition, it might be good to reference the moorish occupation of spain, which probably lent use of the Arabic word to Spanish, and its eventual use in the United States. I will research further. Nuance13x20:33, 24 May 2006 (UTC)Reply
