Talk:Direct–inverse alignment
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"Similarly to the function of an animacy hierarchy in a direct/inverse system the way that Proto Indo-European neuters were not originally regarded as possible verbal agents." -- First, this is a sentence fragment. Second, how is this relevant to direct vs. inverse? This statement doesn't say anything about there being an inverse construction in Proto-Indo-European, and as far as I know, no one has claimed it had one. 24.159.255.29 00:47, 10 October 2006 (UTC)
Hierarchical alignment
editI've seen this term more. It should be at least be mentioned in the article, and may be a better choice for the article name. --JWB (talk) 18:31, 1 May 2008 (UTC)
bizindawaa
editThis term is translated in the article to "He is listened to". However, I could deduce from the foregoing examples that 'o-' means 'he'. Shouldn't it be than 'obizindawaa'? Apart of that, I'd like to ask if instead of "He is listened to" one should say "To him is listened". —Preceding unsigned comment added by 201.95.65.91 (talk) 00:14, 13 April 2009 (UTC)
detranzitivization
editWhat does this word means? Besides I purpose it be added that these languages don't have a morphological way of marking the syntactic functions of its elements, for it would be quite illogical if they had, unless it would play a role in differing the direct from the indirect object, about which nothing is said... 201.95.65.91 (talk) 00:30, 13 April 2009 (UTC)
"Bitransitives" as used here is a synonym for "ditransitive verbs".
edit"Bitransitives" as used here is a synonym for "ditransitive verbs". Eldin raigmore (talk) 20:23, 22 December 2009 (UTC)
need english example.
edittough to understand otherwise. 165.236.200.99 (talk) 21:28, 2 March 2011 (UTC) However, English is not a direct-inverse language. --89.173.232.70 (talk) 14:20, 17 March 2018 (UTC)
Move discussion in progress
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