In the process of copyediting hereditary set, I found myself writing the sentence

In non-well-founded set theories where such objects are allowed, a set that contains only itself is also a hereditary set.[citation needed]

It then occurred to me not only that this may or may not be true, but that it might not even be a meaningful statement. Consider the set E = {E}. By the definition of hereditary sets, if E is hereditary, then {E} is hereditary, which merely restates the initial premise. If E isn't hereditary, then E isn't hereditary, again restating the inital premise. I can't see how to get a better handle on this problem. Can anyone help? -- The Anome (talk) 14:59, 15 January 2010 (UTC)Reply

EmilJ replied to this as follows on the Wikipedia:Reference desk/Mathematics:

The usual way to unambiguously phrase such definitions in non-well-founded set theories is to define that A is a hereditary xxx iff every object in the transitive closure of {A} is a xxx (note that this is equivalent to the inductive definition if the universe is well-founded). Your E is thus indeed a hereditary set. — Emil J. 15:09, 15 January 2010 (UTC)Reply

Can anyone help update the article to reflect this? I'm afraid I'm outside my area of competence. -- The Anome (talk) 15:38, 15 January 2010 (UTC)Reply

Proposal to merge "Hereditarily finite set" and "Hereditarily countable set" to here

edit

Proposal to merge Hereditarily finite set and Hereditarily countable set into Hereditary set.

104.228.101.152 (talk) 13:58, 9 November 2019 (UTC)Reply