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editCould somebody please, please help me on this. I am coming across, in the late 16th century, lords in a border region who are granted heriots from their tenants. I am wondering how to interpret this: was it simply another custom at that stage or was it a sign that the tenants in question were still unfree? Would anybody have any suggestions at all on how to interpret it? (readings in particular would be helpful) Thank you.
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editIs this sentence somehow lacking in punctuation? It is particularly hard to read. "Heriot is one of the many curious laws from feudal times that started because of a logical need between two parties, but because of the custom of noble rights, where whatever rights a lord had before continue on by way of custom, even if the original reason for it no longer existed. " — Preceding unsigned comment added by 130.234.180.172 (talk) 22:54, 1 November 2011 (UTC)