Talk:P-Laplacian

Trivial solution

I observe that the minimizer of the functional $\int _{\Omega }|\nabla u|^{p}$ on the space $W_{0}^{1,p}(\Omega )$ is actually the function $u\equiv 0$. So, either one considers the functional ${\frac {1}{p}}\int _{\Omega }|\nabla u|^{p}-\int _{\Omega }fu$ on the space $W_{0}^{1,p}(\Omega )$, or the functional $\int _{\Omega }|\nabla u|^{p}$ on the set $g+W_{0}^{1,p}(\Omega )$. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 134.95.214.81 (talk) 14:35, 1 December 2010 (UTC)

That was very embarassing. Thanks for the correction. Ray^Talk 14:40, 1 December 2010 (UTC)