Talk:Treason Act 1842

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Question

Latest comment: 16 years ago2 comments2 people in discussion

The text of the law refers to "the Queen" specifically - Does this law apply when a King reigns? —Random832 (contribs) 15:49, 25 March 2008 (UTC)Reply

Yes, under the Interpretation Act 1978 any reference to the monarch at the time a law was passed includes the monarch at any later time, whoever it is. Richard75 (talk) 00:44, 26 March 2008 (UTC)Reply

Section 3

Latest comment: 15 years ago2 comments2 people in discussion

I suggest that the second sentence is wrong information. I think that it is possible for a 'non-lethal assault' (although I am not sure exactly what phrase this means) could well be an overt act of compassing the Sovereign's death. I do not think an intention to kill is necessary, as this sentence suggests.

Halsbury says, if I remember correctly, that if a person wilfully does an act whereby the Sovereign's life may be endangered, that that is sufficient. James500 (talk) 10:45, 27 November 2008 (UTC)Reply

I think you are right. I have rewritten the paragraph. Richard75 (talk) 22:14, 27 November 2008 (UTC)Reply

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