Talk:Treaty of Paris (1814)

Did louis xviii sign the first treaty of paris, or was it talleyrand?

Your best place to ask this is Wikipedia:Reference desk DJ Clayworth 14:16, 26 Apr 2004 (UTC)

not neutral

no source, no ref, just brit propaganda and POV.

• "the terms of the treaty were reasonably lenient towards France"
• "to prevent France becoming a danger again"

wikipedia has no value, it just stinks. Paris By Night 09:56, 18 July 2007 (UTC)

I agree that there should be citations for those statements, but I don't think they are really that biased. The 1814 treaty was certainly a lot more lenient than the 1815 Treaty that came after Waterloo. And from the perspective of the rest of Europe, France did seem like a potential danger; it was the most populous country in Europe outside of Russia, and it had only recently been defeated after a string of successes from 1793-1811. Funnyhat 21:05, 10 August 2007 (UTC)

Grossly inaccurate article!

The slave trade was abolished in France since the revolution and was briefly re-instated by Napoleon. The second (and this time permanent) abolition of slavery in history happened in 1836 in Britain. The final abolition of slavery in France happened in 1848. Therefore when this article mentions that one of the aims of the treaty was to 'abolish slavery over a five year period' it is absolute nonsense. When the First Treaty of Paris was being signed the abolition of slavery had never been permanently instated anywhere!

Secondly, there is mention of Germany being divided up into several nations or sub-states as well as Italy. I'm not quite sure how this can be possible since at this time neither Germany nor Italy existed as nations yet. There was merely a collection of Germanic states named 'the confederation of the Rhine' which was re-shaped by the Great powers. As for Italy, a third of its territory had been annexed to France, one third had been made into a 'Kingdom of Italy' allied with France and the rest remained as before the revolutionary era as the Kingdom of Naples. After the defeat of France the Italian peninsula was re-shaped into its previous duchies.

Finally, the House of Orange was not 'created' to rule over the united Kingdom of Belgium and the Netherlands! It had existed as a French noble family for centuries before that, called the House of Orange because they originated from the city of Orange in South Eastern France. In fact it is the ruling House of the Netherlands today.

There are other inaccuracies and problems with this article but I think it should just be rewritten. I don't know who wrote this article, but clearly this person has very little historical knowledge. Geo-07 (talk) 18:41, 20 February 2008 (UTC) comment left by Geo-07

This sentence from above is a wild one to me: "The second (and this time permanent) abolition of slavery in history happened in 1836 in Britain." The US Civil War, fought in large part over slavery, began in 1860, a long time after 1836. That aside, I just divided the article's lead section, which was pretty much the entire article, into several sections with distinct section titles, and shortened the lead paragraph substantially. The maps of new borders of France are attached to the section on the new border of France. It seems that most points are directly from articles in the treaty, but I am no expert on this treaty. The last paragraph, now titled Aftermath, needs citations per some prior editor, who objected to the whole paragraph. It still has no inline citations, that section. The other sections have citations. --Prairieplant (talk) 06:21, 15 February 2018 (UTC)