Incorrect exchange rate for pre-1966 values?

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Please refer to this discussion.

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Question for you on your recent edit, since I'm not familiar with the inflation template: does the formula account for the fact that 1 pound became $2 upon decimalisation? Aspirex (talk) 12:11, 24 September 2024 (UTC)[reply]Reply

You know what, that is an excellent question! I do recall seeing a vintage video piece about that prior to dollarisation. I assumed it was factored in, because why would I question such a popular Wiki template!
But Wow! Just checked. That is unbelievable! The calculation of £500 in 1940 money says it is $23,813, but I cross-referenced it with the RBA inflation calculator, which specifically addresses the $2:£1 exchange rate. Plugging in the same numbers, I got $47,627.04, which lines up almost perfectly as double the amount!! I think we've found a critical flaw in the conversion process. Man, this is a massive discovery! I'm going to notify people at once and get this looked at. What an incredible discovery. Damn! Electricmaster (talk) 12:22, 24 September 2024 (UTC)Reply