Bkiernanphd1990

I'd like to understand why the Metroplitan of Kiev is, in this author's view, subordinate or secondary in some way to the Archbishop of Polotsk. The parenthetical set-off (Metropolitan of Kiev) seems a bit odd, especially if Meletius did not convert until 1623. Is there a religious or political dimension here that should be explicit in the article? B. Kiernan. Bkiernanphd1990 (talk) 15:24, 24 April 2013 (UTC)