Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Language/2012 October 11
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October 11
editNothing is impossible OR impossible is nothing
editWhat's the difference stylistically and grammatically between both sentences? OsmanRF34 (talk) 14:15, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- The first statement is another way of saying 'everything is possible'. It's grammatically fine to express the thought in either way, although saying 'nothing is impossible' is a good way to reply to someone telling you something can't be done.
- The second statement is, on the face of it, grammatically incorrect. The word order is wrong - it sounds like something Yoda would say. However, spoken with a certain emphasis: "impossible is nothing!", it can mean something like 'I am prepared/able to do absolutely anything, including things others consider impossible, and to go even further than that'. It would be fine in advertising copy or political speech writing, but probably wouldn't work well in a formal report, for example. - Cucumber Mike (talk) 14:59, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- The second one seems to be invoking the Use-mention distinction: "'Impossible' is nothing!" = "Claims of impossibility are as nothing to me!"AlexTiefling (talk) 15:03, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Nothing is the subject and is impossible is a predicative expression that describes it. The latter comprises a linking verb orcopula, and a predicative adjective. English relies mainly on word order to identify the subject and object of a sentence, whereas some other languages actually mark them by changing them. See Subject-verb-object. It's possible to read the second sentence in the way Mike and Alex have suggested, in which case impossible is the subject and nothing is a predicative nominal. In theory, inversion could also allow nothing to remain the subject - for example, compare with Tender Is The Night. But it sounds odd and mannered, and isn't the first assumption a native speaker would make on reading the phrase. - Karenjc 15:48, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Just to correct something that Cucumber Mike said, "Nothing is impossible" is not necessarily the exact same meaning as "everything is possible". The concept of Litotes shows how double negation isn't always equivalent to no negation at all. It may be the sense the speaker is trying to convey, but it doesn't have to be. If I say "She's not ugly", I could mean either "She's plain looking, but not offensive" or I could mean "She's smokin' hot". The second usage would be the use of litotes, but it isn't always clear without some context, such as the body language or intonation of the speaker, or the nature of the conversation to know what the exact meaning of a phrase like that is. For example, if two friends are discussing a third friend, and the one said "She's hideous!" and the second said "Well, she's not ugly!", that's the first usage. If the two friends conversation went this way Friend 1: "Damn she's fine looking". Friend 2: "Well, she's not ugly!", that's the second. It only takes a subtle change of context to completely change the meaning of a phrase. For a humorous example, seethis video, fast forward to 2:00. --Jayron32 16:17, 11 October 2012 (UTC)ʙ̩
- No, you're right. I expressed myself badly. I meant to get over the point that, if your friend tells you he wants to have his 21st birthday party on the Moon, you can say 'Hey, everything's possible' or 'Hey, nothing's impossible' and be fine, grammatically speaking, either way. - Cucumber Mike (talk) 16:25, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Grammatically yes. Semantically, not at all. --Jayron32 16:45, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- No, you're right. I expressed myself badly. I meant to get over the point that, if your friend tells you he wants to have his 21st birthday party on the Moon, you can say 'Hey, everything's possible' or 'Hey, nothing's impossible' and be fine, grammatically speaking, either way. - Cucumber Mike (talk) 16:25, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Just to correct something that Cucumber Mike said, "Nothing is impossible" is not necessarily the exact same meaning as "everything is possible". The concept of Litotes shows how double negation isn't always equivalent to no negation at all. It may be the sense the speaker is trying to convey, but it doesn't have to be. If I say "She's not ugly", I could mean either "She's plain looking, but not offensive" or I could mean "She's smokin' hot". The second usage would be the use of litotes, but it isn't always clear without some context, such as the body language or intonation of the speaker, or the nature of the conversation to know what the exact meaning of a phrase like that is. For example, if two friends are discussing a third friend, and the one said "She's hideous!" and the second said "Well, she's not ugly!", that's the first usage. If the two friends conversation went this way Friend 1: "Damn she's fine looking". Friend 2: "Well, she's not ugly!", that's the second. It only takes a subtle change of context to completely change the meaning of a phrase. For a humorous example, seethis video, fast forward to 2:00. --Jayron32 16:17, 11 October 2012 (UTC)ʙ̩
- In the meantime I found a WK link to Impossible Is Nothing (video résumé) confirming that it sounds mannered, but the author appears to be a native speaker. I am aware that the second sentence is much less uncommon, but does that make it ungrammatical? I thought that it was a way to putting stress on 'nothing' instead of on 'impossible.' The phrase was also used by Adidas, probably taking some liberty to break the grammar for marketing purposes. OsmanRF34 (talk) 16:00, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- (edit conflict) First, the two statements in no way mean the same thing. They are not simply restatements of each other. The second statement undoubtedly does not follow normal, standard rules of English grammar. However, there are times when it can be useful to break the rules in order to emphasise a point - something like when Shakespeare has Julius Caesar say "This was the most unkindest cut of all." I'm sure there's a word for this practice, but I can't think of it right now. Someone will be along shortly to rescue me. - Cucumber Mike (talk) 16:09, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
Consider this paraphrase of Alice in Wonderland:
- "Alice laughed: "There's no use trying," she said; "one can't believe impossible things."
- "Impossible?" scoffed the Queen. "Impossible is nothing." "When I was younger, I would practice for half an hour a day. Why, sometimes I've believed as many as six impossible things before breakfast."
μηδείς (talk) 17:18, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
Help fixing an apparent translation from Italian
editThe article Aliprandi looks like it's been badly translated, either in part or in full, from the Italian version of the article, it:Aliprandi. Could someone with appropriate skills possibly fix up or delete the sentences that don't make much sense in the English version?--Dweller (talk) 16:00, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
Russian help
editWhat are the Russian words in File:Brightonbeachbrooklyn.JPG? Some of one is obscured by a pillar. Can you figure out the full word? Thanks WhisperToMe (talk) 16:33, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- My knowlegde of Cyrillic letters is limited (and my knowledge of Russian practically non-existent), but the obscured words read Чёрное море, meaning "Black Sea". The first word is "Magasin" meaning "shop", so I'd bet the whole thing reads "Black Sea bookstore", just as the shop's English name--Ferkelparade π 16:46, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Yes, exactly, except that that's a z in магазин "magazin". μηδείς (talk) 17:11, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- The other word is knigi, "books". 109.99.71.97 (talk) 18:51, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- МАГАЗИН КНИГИ ЧЕРНОЕ МОРЕ. The diaeresis of the letter Ё is not actually obligatory in Russian spelling; see halfway down the #Russian section of Yo (Cyrillic). --Theurgist (talk) 19:06, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- The other word is knigi, "books". 109.99.71.97 (talk) 18:51, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Yes, exactly, except that that's a z in магазин "magazin". μηδείς (talk) 17:11, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
Thank you! Anyway, what is the Russian at File:Storefront of NY Central Pharmacy.jpg? Also, would anyone mind adding a Russian language description to File:Brightonbeachbrooklyn.JPG? Found a description on the Russian Wikipedia. Thanks WhisperToMe (talk) 22:11, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- That's центральная аптека, tsentral'naja apteka, "central apothecary" (i.e. drugstore). μηδείς (talk) 22:19, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Thank you! It would be nice to have a Russian description for File:Storefront of NY Central Pharmacy.jpg as wellWhisperToMe (talk) 00:24, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- I don't speak standard Russian, so am afraid to compose it myself, others here are competent to do so. μηδείς (talk) 01:06, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- Just added a Russian description. Lesgles (talk) 01:56, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- I don't speak standard Russian, so am afraid to compose it myself, others here are competent to do so. μηδείς (talk) 01:06, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- Thank you! It would be nice to have a Russian description for File:Storefront of NY Central Pharmacy.jpg as wellWhisperToMe (talk) 00:24, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
Chinese sources -> English
editI'm working on the State Grid Corporation of China, one of the biggest companies in the world according to Wikipedia[1], but as a Chinese-only company, most of their sources are in Chinese.
I have done the best I can to improve the article with the English sources I can find. Does anyone have some guidance on how to (a) see if there is a better version in the Chinese Wikipedia that can be translated or (b) a good way to to get a translation of the sources? Corporate 19:10, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Visit the article at zh:国家电网 and then find a user who speaks good English (EN-3 to 5 or N) on ZH Wikipedia, and see if they can helpWhisperToMe (talk) 22:14, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Do a google translate, pick out the paragraphs that look interesting, and post them here, plenty of native speakers of Chinese are active here.--PalaceGuard008 (Talk) 09:47, 15 October 2012 (UTC)
"Nicholas" with an "M"
editCan anyone explain how in a group of central and eastern European languages, the variant of the name Nicholas begins with an M? It seems to be inPolish, Czech, Slovak, Hungarian (but not any related language),Lithuanian (but not Latvian), Belarusian and Ukrainian (but not Russian). Clearly an areal feature (possibly corresponding with the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth), but how and why did it occur?93.96.208.82 (talk) 19:14, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- The name is also used in Ruthenian and, according to Babynames.com, in Finnish. A search at Google Scholar doesn't return anything useful. My suspicion is it is due to interference from the name Mikhail. μηδείς (talk) 19:37, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- See, and I was thinking that there was some sort of transition, akin to Grimm's law in western Languages, that perhaps those languages have some sort of N-->M shift present in many words. I don't speak any of them, but are there other analogues where N words in Western European languages are M words in the cognate in Eastern European languages? Maybe in all positions, maybe only in initial positions, maybe when followed by a vowel? I only ask because my 3-year old son (an obvious native English speaker, but a very young one) confuses and swaps "N" and "M" sometimes (my favorite is that he says "Lenomade" for Lemonade and "Walnart" for "Walmart". Otherwise, he's quite eloquent). So, does anyone who speaks those languages know? --Jayron32 20:13, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Lemonade > lenomade is metathesis, Walmart > Walnart is phonetic assimilation. Both phenomena can occur regularly accross the sounds of a language, or just in individual words. My little sister used to call medicine "bedimus", which exhibits a complex case of both changes. Theunconditioned sound change of initial /n/ to /m/ is unheard of as far as I know. Final /m/ to /n/ is common. Final /n/ to /m/ is quite rare, and in Portuguese is a result of the neutralization and reanalysis of final nasal consonants. μηδείς (talk) 22:16, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- But the fact that it's languages within a certain area (irrespective of the familial relations of the languages: we have all the West Slavic languages, some East Slavic ones, one Baltic and one isolated Uralic) suggests that there is some kind of specific influence in that area that seems to have spread. Perhaps for instance, there was some (say) Polish leader whose name became spelt like this, and then it spread to the various areas he was leader of? 93.96.208.82 (talk) 21:52, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- No, it is definitely not a regular sound change in this case, which points strongly to interference. (Unfortunately our link linguistic interference doesn't help here.) Compare the word citizen which comes from the same source that gave the expected modern French citoyen, but shows interference from denizen: http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=citizen The areal surmise is likely right in tracing it to thePolish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, just can't confirm that without a source, and my net searches have been unhelpful. μηδείς (talk) 22:02, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- See, and I was thinking that there was some sort of transition, akin to Grimm's law in western Languages, that perhaps those languages have some sort of N-->M shift present in many words. I don't speak any of them, but are there other analogues where N words in Western European languages are M words in the cognate in Eastern European languages? Maybe in all positions, maybe only in initial positions, maybe when followed by a vowel? I only ask because my 3-year old son (an obvious native English speaker, but a very young one) confuses and swaps "N" and "M" sometimes (my favorite is that he says "Lenomade" for Lemonade and "Walnart" for "Walmart". Otherwise, he's quite eloquent). So, does anyone who speaks those languages know? --Jayron32 20:13, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Medeis's hypothesis is correct, according to Vasmer: "Народн. Мику́ла получило м- от Михаи́л, как и польск. Мikоłаj. Объяснение м- из нов.-греч. невозможно, вопреки Соболевскому." "Popular Mikula [m forms are also found in folk Russian] gained an m- from Mikhail, as did the Polish Мikоłаj. The explanation of m- from modern Greek is impossible, despite what Sobolevsky says." [2]Lesgles (talk) 02:10, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- If it is found in Russian it is likely traceable to northern (i.e., Western and Eastern) Slavic which is a dialect continuum, or even earlier. It's curious whether it's attested in Bulgarian or Slovenian, which are the outliers of Southern Slavic. μηδείς (talk) 02:47, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
Extended discourse not relevant to the central question. |
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- Aaand to bring the debate back - in Slovenian the name is not among the most popular ones, but it does have both variants. There's Nikolaj and Miklavž. Although that second one is limited almost entirely to the name of the Slovenian folk version of the Christmas gift bringer. Not saying this second version is non-existent as a personal name, but it is fairly rare.192.51.44.16 (talk) 09:09, 16 October 2012 (UTC)
- Meanwhile, I know someone named Nichael (with an English surname). Our acquaintance isn't close enough that I've dared ask how that happened.—Tamfang (talk) 07:18, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- There is always Nichelle Nichols
Horse/Hors/Pferd/Equus
editdictionary.com says that the word "Horse" is cognate with the Old Norse "Hross", and cognate with the German "Ross". But the German word for Horse is "Pferd". Where did "Pferd" come from? It certainly doesn't appear to be related to "Hross" or the Latin "Equus". 69.62.243.48 (talk) 23:46, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- Wiktionary says it derives from the Latin paraveredus, meaning "An extra horse; post horse or courier's horse for outlying or out of the way places". Presumably the Romans considered Germany an out of the way place. Looie496 (talk) 23:56, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
- English palfrey is from the same root, via Anglo-Norman. Lesgles (talk) 02:16, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- According to Mallory and Adams, horse itself is apparently cognate with hurry, course, car, and Epicurus, all from PIE *kers.μηδείς (talk) 02:36, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- And then there's French cheval and Spanish caballo, which I believe come from late Latin caballus, meaning "nag" - from which we ultimately get "chivalry". --Nicknack009 (talk) 09:13, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- In German, "das Ross" does mean "the steed" and I have seen it used, although it is true "das Pferd" was much more common in my personal everyday experience. Falconusp t c 15:46, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- And then there's French cheval and Spanish caballo, which I believe come from late Latin caballus, meaning "nag" - from which we ultimately get "chivalry". --Nicknack009 (talk) 09:13, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- According to Mallory and Adams, horse itself is apparently cognate with hurry, course, car, and Epicurus, all from PIE *kers.μηδείς (talk) 02:36, 12 October 2012 (UTC)
- English palfrey is from the same root, via Anglo-Norman. Lesgles (talk) 02:16, 12 October 2012 (UTC)