Talk:Harappa

Latest comment: 5 months ago by 2003:F5:F712:6800:5CD2:C7EF:310E:AF3C in topic About the writing system in the seals

Organized

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Is it possible to organize this article into various parts, like

  • 1. Overview
  • 2. History
  • 3. Culture
  • 4. People (Inhabitants)
  • 5. Architechture
  • 6. Recent developments/discoveries, etc.

    Dates

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    I agree with the above. In addition, there appears to be a significant inconsistency in the dates?:

    "The city existed from about 3300 BCE..." followed by "Indus Valley civilization (known also as Harappan culture) appeared around 2500 B.C...."

    82.133.100.35 01:11, 20 November 2006 (UTC)Reply

    Script

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    I thought someone decoded it and discovered it was Sanskrit? Arrow740 11:32, 1 December 2006 (UTC)Reply

    Any reference? Szhaider 11:55, 1 December 2006 (UTC)Reply

    The indus script has not been decoded. Not a word of it. Unre4L 00:07, 16 December 2006 (UTC)Reply

    Indian Tag

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    Pre-1947 Indian tag is now much better without Ashoka Chakra. Now it's neutral and does not imply Hindu dominance. Szhaider 18:23, 31 December 2006 (UTC)Reply

    The Ashoka chakra is not anything related to Hindu dominance. It is the Buddhist Wheel of Dharma ­ Kris (talk) 21:38, 1 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    As it is also a part of the flag of predominantly Hindu India (more properly known as Bhaarat in Hindi), therefore, it is not acceptable. Szhaider 23:19, 1 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    That's not a good reason. India is a secular country. The Wheel of Dharma is common to all Dharmic faiths such as Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism, though its more popular as a buddhist motif. It has nothing to do with Hindu dominance or anything. Besides Harappans were very much Hindu as the figurines of swastika and pasupati found in Harappa show. ­ Kris (talk) 16:34, 2 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    Sanskrit script in this article

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    If the justification for the need for sanskrit script in this article is that this site was part of the Indus Valley Civilisation, then is there any proof for the existance of Sanskrit during the Indus Valley civ days? Parthi talk/contribs 10:37, 2 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    Is there any proof of urdu back in the indus valley days?--D-Boy 12:37, 2 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    Indus Valley Civilization was an Indian civilization even though Harappa today is located in a political entity called Pakistan created in the recent past. There are more IVC excavated sites in Indian territory than in Pakistan. Sanskrit did exist in Harappan times since its origin dates back to pre-historic times and it existed even before Rig Vedic times (see Rig_veda#Dating_and_historical_reconstruction). There is no harm in retaining both devanagari and urdu scripts for the name. And yes, history of Harappa is also the history of Pakistan. ­ Kris (talk) 16:34, 2 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    The physical location of the site is in the modern state of Pakistan and hence following conventions, Urdu should be there, although I'm opposed to any vernacular script in the English language encyclopedia. The Sanskrit language did not exist during the Indus valley days. Atleast there is no proof for such an existance. I see no need for inserting Sanskrit here. Thanks Parthi talk/contribs 18:28, 2 January 2007 (UTC)Reply
    There is no policy about the scripts. But if the urdu is there, then the sanskrit should be there as well. pakistan didn't exsist back then.--D-Boy 09:10, 3 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    India didnt exist either, and the Harrapan people didnt have anything to do with Sanskrit. It is a Pakistani civilisation, and last time I checked, Sanskrit didnt play a major role in in this era. Just remember, India is not another word for South Asia.
    Have a nice day. --Unre4LITY 01:06, 11 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    first off, pakistan did not even exist. second, neither did urdu.--D-Boy 08:33, 13 January 2007 (UTC)Reply
    Most importantly Sanskrit didn't exist during the Indus Valley Civilisation either. Thanks Parthi talk/contribs 11:20, 13 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    Even more Importantly India didnt exist. And since its located in Pakistan, Pakistan is the home of it. Unre4LITY 18:57, 13 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    I don't see the need for Sanskrit in the first paragraph. The IVC pre-dates Sanskrit. The only reason why "Urdu" appears there is that Harrappa is in modern-day Pakistan and Urdu is the national language of Pakistan. Harrappa has nothing to do exclusively with "Pakistani civilization." It was part of an Ancient civilization on the Indian subcontinent that is now a part of Pakistan. Sanskrit did have a lot to do with the area of present-day Harrappa and indeed even regions farther west (e.g. the grammarian Pāṇini hailed from Gandhara), but that was much later in history when the IVC was long gone. Fowler&fowler«Talk» 21:00, 13 January 2007 (UTC)Reply
    I only script which is suitable for the article is the Indus script, which is of course undeciphered at the moment. Sanskrit and Urdu weren't spoken in the civilisation, so both should go. GizzaChat © 12:09, 14 January 2007 (UTC)Reply
    Harappa is also a present-day city in Punjab, Pakistan (in addition to being a IVC site). For that reason, it is valid for Urdu (or Punjabi written in Urdu script) to appear in its name, in the same way that Gujarati appears in the name of Lothal, but no Sanskrit does. Lothal (Gujarātī: લોથલ, IPA: [ˈloːtʰəl], English: Mound of the dead). Gujarati, of course, didn't exist at the time of IVC either. Fowler&fowler«Talk» 13:47, 14 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    Its about the time people stopped arguing over scripts! As I see it Urdu stays Sanskrit goes... Amey Aryan DaBrood© 21:02, 14 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    PS. Incidentally, Mohenjo-daro has the Urdu and Sindhi scripts, but no Sanskrit. Fowler&fowler«Talk» 13:56, 14 January 2007 (UTC)Reply
    It still find the modern languages pretty useless considering that none of these cities still exist. They have more reason to stay than Sanskrit, which probably flourished in these cities from around 1500 B.C. to 500 A.D. GizzaChat © 21:43, 14 January 2007 (UTC)Reply


    The 1500BCE timeline is just a conservative date for the completion of the Rig Veda, and the Rig Veda was composed over a period of hundreds of years. So definitely Sanskrit must have existed in the region for a long time before the Vedas were composed, since it was sufficiently evolved enough by the time the Vedas were composed. It is very likely that the Indus Valley civilization could have been the Vedic Civilization, see Pashupati & Swastika#Archaeological_record. The weights and measures later used in Kautilya's Arthashastra (4th century BC) are the same as those used in Lothal (see Indus_valley#Science). Further the Vedic Sarasvati is said to have dried up between 5000BC and 3000BC (see Sarasvati_river#Identification). All this suggests that Sanskrit is the strongest contender for the language of the Harappan people, pending actual decipherment of their script. So Sanskrit should find a place in Harappa related articles, if a totally unrelated language like Urdu can be included based on present-day political boundaries. ­ Kris (talk) 23:37, 14 January 2007 (UTC)Reply

    Swastikas aren't mentioned in any of the Vedas and Pashupati is only mentioned in the fourth one. Hinduism is a mixture of Vedic and native beliefs. Many of the native beliefs are also found in IVC. None of the Vedic beliefs and devatas are. I didn't see any murtis of Indra, Agni or Surya in the IVC excavation. I myself like many Hindus believe that the Vedas are ananta/sanatan (eternal, never created) but non-Hindu academics and scholars all agree that IVC is not connected with the Vedas. Some people like Tilak claim the Vedas were created in the Artic region during the Ice Age. And most importanty if Sanskrit was spoken in the IVC, it should be in the Indus script not Devanagari obviously. And nobody can decipher the IVC script. If you want Urdu to be reomved, on the same premises Gujarati will have to be removed from Lothal. GizzaChat © 00:20, 15 January 2007 (UTC)Reply
    

    Sanskrit is an Indo-European language. From everything I've read, Indo-Europeans didn't arrive in the area until a few centuries after the Indus River Valley Civilization had completely collapsed. There has been some speculation that the Indus River Valley Civilization may have been related to the Elamites and/or the Dravidians. Years ago, I read all the back issues of the Journal of Indo-European Studies (JIES) which is where I picked up this information. Also, see In Search of the Indo-Europeans by J. P. Mallory and the Encyclopedia of Indo-European Culture by J. P. Mallory and Douglas Q. Adams. Of course an early form of Sanskrit would have existed, something like proto-Indic or pre-Vedic, but it would have been spoken in Central Asia and South-Eastern Europe. Before the could arrive in the Indian subcontinent, they would first have to fight their way through the territory of the Dasa, another Indo-European people who lived in what is now Turkmenistan Zyxwv99 (talk) 02:58, 24 November 2011 (UTC)Reply

    Re: Scripts, You do realize these weren't the actual names of the cities?

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    Everyone is arguing about scripts and saying it shouldn't be in Urdu or Sanskrit because IVC pre-dates both. However, Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro are not the actual names of the cities. the IVC script is untranslatable. We don't know what they called their own cities. The names Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro are MODERN names given to the sites or taken from nearby, still existing, villages/towns. As such, the page should certainly list the scripts as you're talking about names developed in Urdu, Sanskrit, Dravidian etc..207.237.208.153 (talk) 17:56, 7 June 2013 (UTC)Reply

    Nobody Can Decipher Harappan?

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    But I just did!

    http://harappanseals.piczo.com/?nsrc=none&g=42827102&pg=y&cr=2

    76.191.206.99 (talk) 22:03, 31 May 2010 (UTC) I think many people are confused with the history of forming of india ,pakistan and languages used in both the countries.My studies about history says that Pakistan is formed in 1947(august).so no doubt that there is no relation of pakistan with indus valley civilization.As Islam and urdu has its own history and were found not more than 2000 years before i.e.about 500 AC.Reply

                Even Sanskrit is found in about 1000 BC to 1500 BC only.so not even sanskrit was possible to be there in that civilization.Even no casts or any kind of religions were present at that time because no such proofs are found there except the god like PASHUPATI have more resemblance with natural thoughts of human being about the supernatural powers.You can say that the religions of humans starts from this civilization.
                This civilization might me destroyed because of the attcks of Aryans and they were not in the position of use of these cities so they left it and civilization moved from east to the south and other parts of remaining India which took large time to be spread all over India.
    

    Copyvios and Irrelevant Sections

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    It seems that at 18:06, on 27 October 2006 a large portion of text was added by user:203.128.22.67. Upon examination, the text shows verbatim or minimally paraphrased "cut and paste"s from at least one website: Harappan Culture (from Library of Congress Country Studies). It seems also that after that well-meaning editors tried to incorporate the text into various sections, some of which are irrelevant to the subject at hand. These sections are:

    The sections belong properly to WP pages like Gandhara and Taxila, but not to Harappa. I am therefore removing these sections. I will also paraphrase two other sections and give the relevant web site as citation. However, please in the future: no cut-and-past copyvios. Fowler&fowler«Talk» 22:03, 13 January 2007 (UTC) May be possible that by using the cryptography of greece and egypt we can decypher this scipt but require large amount of knoweldge of the process of civilization.Suhas Gajakosh.(Maharashtra). —Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.200.210.28 (talk) 19:19, 11 June 2010 (UTC)Reply

    Picture?

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    I seem to remember there being a picture on this page. Was there? I would add one but I don't know how.--Onceonthisisland 14:14, 25 April 2007 (UTC)Reply

    I've added a picture. Best, Obed Suhail (talk) 14:38, 6 January 2009 (UTC)Reply

    Modern Town ?

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    Hi,

    The lead mention a modern town but there is hardly any mention of it in the article. Does the town still exist ? Does someone has demographic data, pictures, map (modern ones)?

    The Culture and economy section refers to the Harappean/IVC rather than the ancient city itself not to mention the modern town. Is it a suburb now or an agricultural township. Is there a mosque, a church or other temples now ?

    Ghaag (talk) 06:26, 24 March 2009 (UTC)Reply

    If you follow the coordinates in the article and look them up with Google Maps or something, you'll see that the modern town lies very close to the ancient site. I think this article should not cover the modern town, which should get its own article. Maybe Harappa (modern town)? --AlexanderVanLoon (talk) 12:24, 19 February 2013 (UTC)Reply
    Yes at this time there is modren agrucultural town i am visited many times. There is a A Mosque and a tomb at the site . 37.111.134.127 (talk) 11:06, 9 April 2024 (UTC)Reply

    Harappa Museum

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    {{editsemiprotected}} Harappa site, Harappa , Sahiwal, Pakistan Telephone: + 92 40 4431099

      Not done: please be more specific about what needs to be changed.  Skomorokh, barbarian  12:42, 1 October 2009 (UTC)Reply

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    History Harappa city information

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    Harappa city information 2409:4042:E08:49B9:0:0:9409:3008 (talk) 12:53, 22 June 2022 (UTC)Reply

    Apologies, but do you have a question or a suggestion for the article? Dumuzid (talk) 13:23, 22 June 2022 (UTC)Reply

    Same as the Indus Valley Civilisation Article?

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    This article, does not cover only what is related to Harappa, but includes a lot of information on the Harappan Civilisation on the whole. The Indus Valley Civilisation has the purpose of covering that information, and this article should cover Harappa in more detail. PrathuCoder (talk) 11:15, 6 January 2023 (UTC)Reply

    About the writing system in the seals

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    It is obvious that the writings on the seals don't belong to the Indus-Sarasvati Civilisation but to an earlier (vedic) Era. This arrives from the fact that at least some of the Seals show religious scenes related to the Veda, while no temples and neither private nor public sides of worshipping were found in the cities of this civilisation. Among other things this fits the description in Srimad Bhagavatam 12.1.39 which describes this society as post-vedic. 2003:F5:F712:6800:5CD2:C7EF:310E:AF3C (talk) 20:34, 2 June 2024 (UTC)Reply